Eschatology

There are no doubt striking parallels between the writings of Daniel, Matthew, and John, with regard to the Great Tribulation and the events surrounding it.  When laid out, it seems clear that they are speaking of the same things.  When coupled with the many TIME related statements, in each writing, it becomes apparent to me that these events were about to take place in the time of the disciples and not 2000 years later.  Consider the following:

Starting from Jesus' words in the Olivett Discourse (Mt. 24, Lk. 21, Mk.13) we can see that the events spoken of refer to the same events in Daniel/Mt. 24:15. Notice also the context of the passage: "When 'YOU' (Peter, James, John, and Andrew) see the abomination of desolation...."  Once we have carefully laid out the order of these events in the Olivett Discourse, we can also see that they very closely parallel Jesus' words in Revelation 6.  What is interesting is that at the end of Daniel where he asks about the Great Tribulation (Dan. 12:1,6), he is told to seal up his book (12:4,9) because it relates to events at the time of the end.  Note how Revelation 6 opens up - the unsealing of a scroll. Could this be the very scroll Daniel was told to seal???  Now, if Daniel [is] writing about the Great Tribulation (during the time of the end), and Jesus identifies this time with the events of the Olivett Discourse (at the end of the age), and these parallel Revelation 6 - should they not tell the same story?

John is told these things in the OPENING and CLOSING chapters of Revelation are about to take place (Rev. 1:1, 1:3 and 22:10, 22, et. al.).  Are we to believe that "shortly," "the time is near," "the time is at hand," and "quickly," all of a sudden, when we get to the book of Revelation, have the OPPOSITE meaning as those same time texts in all other books of the Bible?  Yes, it's true, "to God" a day is a thousand years and a thousand years is a day (He lives outside of time - PS. 90:4), but "YOU" and "I" et. al., cannot get out of bed without LOOKING at the time.  I would argue that Jesus is not linguistically challenged, and as such, the time texts in the opening and closing chapters mean what they say, and Jesus meant what he said.  There is nothing apocalyptic about time texts and the time texts in the book of Revelation should have the same meaning as all the other books of the Bible.  Take a moment here to contrast the definition of "long time" in scripture (using Sola Scripture as our guide).  John 5:5,6 says, "One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years.  When Jesus saw him lying there and learned that he had been in this condition for a "long time," he asked him, “Do you want to get well?”    If thirty-eight years in scripture is considered a "long time" how is it that "shortly," "the time is near," "the time is at hand," and "quickly," can last 2000 years or more???  There are many, many, other "long time" time texts that always describe a period of time within an individuals life time.

NOTE also, John is told in Rev 22:22 that he is NOT to seal up his book (for the time was near).  This is the exact opposite of Daniel's admonition TO seal his book (for the time was apparently still far in the future). Consider this: John wrote Revelation in the 1st Century A.D.  If Daniel wrote around 550 B.C. (when "the end" was still far off), and John wrote about the same event(s) approximately 600 years after Daniel (when "the time" was near), how could we still be looking for fulfillment 2000 years later?

Daniel was specifically told that "the end" would come when the "power of the holy people [the Jews]" was shattered. The power of the Jews was shattered in 70 A.D. at the destruction of the temple and the city of Jerusalem . . . and it was this very destruction that Jesus was speaking of in the Olivett Discourse (Mt.23:38-24:4).  Matthew records that Jesus said the end would come after the Gospel had been preached in the whole world.  It would seem that this could not have happened by 70 A.D. But as Paul shows in Colossians 1:5-6, 23 and Romans 10:18 it had in fact gone into the whole world ("the world" was synonymous with the Roman Empire - see Acts 11:28; 17:6).  "The End" then, was the end of the Old Covenant. The "end times" (or "last days") were the transition period that lasted about 40 years starting from the time of Christ and extending ONE BIBLICAL GENERATION (Mt. 24:34) to 70 A.D.  Just as the Old Covenant was established after a 40 year transition time (from Egypt to the Promised Land), so was the New established in a 40 year transition out of spiritual Egypt (1 Cor. 10:1-6; Gal 4:21-31; Heb. 4:9; Rev. 11:8 & 19).

A careful re-reading and understanding of Daniel 9:27 will tell you that the destruction of Jerusalem does not take place within the 70th week (I think EVERY Biblical scholar agrees on this), the "desolation's were determined" however (Dan. 9:26), within the 70th week and carried out according to Jesus Himself 40 years after He DETERMINED it:  Matt 23:34-36 "Therefore, indeed I send you prophets, wise men, and scribes: some of them you will kill and crucify and some of them you will scourge in your synagogues and persecute from city to city, that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. Truly I tell you, all this will come on "THIS GENERATION."  "This Generation" means "This Generation."  Unless you subscribe to Clintonian grammar:  ""It depends on what the meaning of the word 'is' is."

A judge will tell a convicted murderer: "It is the determination of this court that you will hang by the neck until you are dead."  The sentence is "determined" on one day while the sentence may not be carried out until some time in the future.  In similar fashion, the destruction of Jerusalem was "DETERMINED within the 70th week, by Jesus Himself, and the events were carried out forty years later.  Adam in Gen 3:17 was told that he would die on the very day that he ate the forbidden fruit.  We know from scripture Adam did not literally drop dead on that day it was DETERMINED he would die.  Physical death however was a certain result of the "determination."  In like manner, Jerusalem's TRIBULATION was made certain by the Jewish rejection of their Messiah, but it was some time later (40 years NOT 2000 years) when the TRIBULATION event actually occurred. 

Is it credible to believe a late date writing of the book of Revelation, and also believe, there is no mention of the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in God's inspired Word describing apocalyptic events???  Is it credible to think someone in America today would write a thesis on terrorism and omit the events of 9/11???  Is it really credible to suppose if someone told you that they were going to pick you up in 4 hours for a meeting, and they did not show up until the next day, but they claimed they were on time, because they were counting the first three hours in a row, but counted the fourth as a separate hour that was to come only after some undetermined interval???    No it doesn't seem credible either to presume a 2000 year floating gap between Daniel's 69th and 70th week.